Test 6 (DotNet frame work & RDBMS)

Q1. Which Sections is of a an assembly indicates whether it’s an exe or a dll?

1: PE Header

2: .text Section

3. ans) .idata Section

4. CLR Header

Q2. Is it possible to create a multifile assembly?

1. Not possible

2. ans) It is possible

3. Possible only in .Net 1.1

4. Possible only in .Net 2.0

Q3. SN.exe is used for:

1. ans) Generating a key/value pair

2. Giving strong name to an assembly

3. Adding assembly to GAC

4. None of the above

Q4. Strongly named assemblies are temper resistant.

1. ans) True

2. False

Q5. Delayed signing allows you to:

1. Build an assembly using only private key

2. Digitally sign the assembly

3. Generate public key token

4. ans) Build an assembly using only public key

Q6. Side-by-side execution indicates

1. Multiple processes are running on same address space.

2. Multiple assemblies of different name are running in different address space.

3. Multiple processes are running on different address space.

4. ans) Multiple assemblies of same name are running in different address space.

Q7. Namespace in .Net FCL helps in

1. Aliasing

2. Avoid name clashes between 2 sets of code

3. ans) Both 1 & 2

4. None

Q8. using statement provides syntax that ensures the correct use of IDisposable objects.

1. ans) True

2. False

3. True only for framework 1.1v

4. True only for framework 2.0v and above

Q9. Which tool is used to compile an assembly’s IL code to CPU’s native code and saves it to a file on the disk?

1. ans) NGen.exe

2. AL.exe

3. NANT.exe

4. CSC.exe

Q10. What is CTS?

1. Common type Source

2. ans) Common type System

3. Common type Security

4. Common type Safe

Q11. Which .Net feature allows defining information that can be applied to any metadata table entry of assembly?

1. Exceptions management

2. Automatic memory management

3. ans) Custom attributes

4. Delegates

RDBMS

1. The heart of an IS is  ___________ because IS has to handle massive amounts of data
1. Tables
2. Database Management
3. Computers
4. Records
2. A Database Management System is a collection of
1. Tables
2. Records
3. Tuples
4. Programs
3. Constructing the Database is the process of
1. Retrieving data
2. Storing  the  data
3. Deleting the data
4. Updating the data
4. This metadata helps management in maintaining an effective and efficient database system.
1. Database
2. Tables
3. Metadata
4. Programs
5. They Interact with the system from the interface or terminal         
1. Operators
2. End Users
3. Application Programmers
4. DBA
6. The main components of DBMS are
1. Query Language, Query Processor
2. Query Language, Database Manager
3. Query Processor, File Manager
4. Query Language, Query Processor, Database Manager, File Manager                      
5. QL,QP,DB Manager, File Manger, Concurrency controller, Recovery Manager
7. One fundamental characteristic of the database approach is that it provides some level of
1. Programming
2. GUI
3. Data Abstraction
4. None of these


8. Conceptual data model
1. Provides concepts that provide details of data
2. Represents information such as record formats, Record Orderings  and access paths
3. Provide concepts that are close to the way many users perceive data.
4. All the above
9. Physical Model
1. Provide concepts that describe the details of how data is stored in the computer. 
2. Concepts provided by low-level data models are generally meant for computer specialists, not for typical end users.
3.  Represent information such as record formats, record orderings, and access paths
4. All the above
5. None of these
10. The goal of the three schema architecture 
1. is to separate the user applications and the physical database.
2. To Provide and GUI interface to the Database
3. To Connect to a Client
4. To create an Interface
11. They will be many distinct
1. Internal Views
2. Conceptual views
3. External views
4. Both a and b
5. All the above
12. The internal level
1. it is the one concerned with the way data is physically stored
2.  it is the one concerned with the way data is viewed by individual users
3.  is a level of indirection between the other two levels
4. none of these
13. The conceptual/internal mapping:
1. defines the correspondence between a particular external view and the conceptual view
2. defines the correspondence between the conceptual view and the stored database
3. it is a level of interaction between the other two levels
4. all of these


14. The three-schema components include all, but:
1. internal schema.
2. External Schema
3. Programming schema
4. Conceptual schema
15. The description of data in terms of data model is
1. Table
2. Tuple
3. Schema
4. Records
16. Which of the following database activities determines the entities, attributes, and relationships of data?
1. Conceptual data modeling
2. Logical database design
3. Physical database design and definition
4. Database implementation
17. Which of the following database activities require a specific knowledge of a DBMS?
1. Enterprise modeling
2. Conceptual data modeling
3. Logical database design
4. Physical database design and definition

18. The Internal View / Schema
1. The internal view (or stored database) is a low-level representation of the entire database.
2.  The internal view is defined by the internal schema, which defines the various stored record types and specified what indexes exist.
3.  is a representation of the entire content of the database, in a form that is somewhat abstract in comparison with the way in which the data is physically stored.
4. Both a and c
5. Both a and b
6. None of these .
19. There must be a definition of the mapping
1.  External an internal schema
2. Conceptual model
3.  between the external schema and the underlying conceptual schema.
4. None of these


20.  the ability  to separate the three different views of data is
1. Redundancy
2.  data independence
3. Anomalies
4. Database management system
21. Defining the conceptual and internal schema is done by
1. End user
2. Database management system
3. Oracle
4. Database Administrator
22. this model represents data as record types
1. Relational Model
2. Hierarchical model
3. Network model
4. Object oriented Database Model
23. Implementation Schema is programmed using
1. DDL
2. DML
3. C
4. TCL
24. Which of the following database activities allow for the actual retrieval and use of a database?

a.     Enterprise modeling

b.     Logical database design

c.     Physical database design and definition

d.     Database implementation

25. an entity type is which of the following?

                                                  i.      A major category of data about people, place, and things

                                                ii.      The various departments of an organization

                                              iii.      The application software

                                              iv.      The business processes the support the mission of an organization

26. The first step in database development is which of the following?

a.Enterprise modeling

b.Logical database design

c.  Physical database design and

definition

           d .Database implementation

27. Select Extracts
1. Specified rows from  a table
2. Specified columns from a table           
3. Joins together the two table
4. None of the above


28. Operations are all
1. Row-at –a -time
2. Column-at-a-time
3. Set-at-a-time
4. None of the above
29.  All the information of various schemas are consisted in
1. Tables
2. Catalog
3. Database
4. Records
30. the set of possible values a given attribute can have is called
1. Entity
2. Domain
3. Tuple
4. Table
31. Primary Key
1.  Unique Identifier for a Table
2. Table
3. Represents a tuple
4. None of these
32. any key consisting of single attribute is
1. Super Key
2. Simple Key
3. Key
4. Determinant
33. if all foreign  key constrains are enforced
1. table is created
2. relation is complete
3. referential integrity is achieved
4. all of these
34.  what are entities and relationships in the enterprise is addressed in
1. DBMS
2. Normalization
3. Conceptual Design
4. Schema Refinement
5. Logical Design
35. ER model is based on
1. Rules
2. Entities
3. Conceptual desing
4. Physical Design
5. All  desing phases


36. the group of similar entities is
1. domain
2. entity set
3. tuples
4. records
37. it is a  association between two or more entities
1. normalization
2. redundancy
3. relationships
4. attributes
38. A regular entity
1. Depends on weak entity
2. Does not depend on any other entity
3. Depends on relation
4. Depends on attributes
39.  A relations ship is depicted by
1. Diamond
2. Circle
3. Square
4. Dark line
40.  attributes are
1. Instances
2. Inherited
3. Entities
4. None of these
41. Aggregation
1. is meant to represent a relationship between a whole object and its component parts.
2. Used when we have to model a relationship involving (entity sets and) a relationship set .
3. allows us to treat a relationship set as an entity set for purposes of participation in (other) relationships
4. all of the above
42. Each regular entity type
1. Maps into a  base relation
2. Is weak
3. Is dependent on weak entity
4. None of the above
43.  normalization is a process of
1.  ER diagram
2. Breaking composite table into smaller ones
3. Defining the database                                                    
4. None of the above


44. A table is said to be in 2NF
1.  when it is in 1NF and every non-prime attribute in the record is functionally dependent upon the whole key, and not just part of the key.
2.  When every non-prime attribute in the record is functionally dependent upon the whole key, and not just part of the key.
3.  No prime attribute is transitively dependant
4. None ot the above
45. Normalisation
1. The Key the Whole Key and Nothing but the Key
2. Defining Primary key
3. Defining constraints
4. None of the above
46. Strategic Planning factors do not include which of the following?
1. Organizational goals
2. Critical success factors
3. Information engineering
4. Problem areas
47. Whose role is it to determine the requirements and design for a database?
1. Database analysts
2. Database administrators
3. Both A and B.
4. Neither A or B.
48. User views are included as part of which schema?
1. Internal
2. Conceptual
3. External
4. None of the above.
49. A rectangle represents which of the following in an ERD?
1. Attribute
2. Entity
3. Optional
4. Relationship
50. An oval represents which of the following in an ERD?
1. Attribute
2. Entity
3. Optional
4. Relationship
51. An entity name should be which of the following?
1. A singular noun
2. Specific to the organization
3. Concise
4. All of the above.
52. A binary relationship cannot be which of the following?
1. One-to-One
2. One-to-Many
3. Many-to-Many
4. Zero-to-Zero
53. If there are two entities with a relationship between them, and one of the entities is completely dependent on the other, then which of the following must exist?
1. Derived attribute
2. Optional one cardinality
3. Multi-valued attribute
4. Weak entity
54. A binary relationship is which of the following?
1. A relationship between two attributes
2. A relationship between two entities
3. An attribute with two different relationships
4. An entity with two different relationships
55. Which of the following conditions should exist if you want to convert a relationship to an associative entity?
1. Some of the relationships for the participating entities are "many".
2. The resulting associative entity has an independent meaning
3. The resulting associative entity has no attributes.
4. All of the above
56. A ternary relationship involves how many entities?
1. 3 or less
2. 3
3. More than 3
4. 3 or more
57. A relationship is which of the following?
1. A person, place, or thing
2. Property or characteristic of an entity
3. Link between entities
4. Weak entity
58. The relational model consists of:
1. data in the form of tables.
2. data redundancy.
3. operations using non-SQL languages
4.  unorganized data.
59. A primary key is which of the following?
1. Any attribute
2. An attribute that uniquely identifies each row
3. An attribute that uniquely identifies each column
4. A derived attribute
60. A foreign key is which of the following?
1. Any attribute
2. The same thing as a primary key
3. An attribute that serves as the primary key of another relation
4. An attribute that serves no purpose
61. The entity integrity rule states that:
1. no primary key attribute may be null.
2. no primary key can be composite.
3. no primary key may be unique
4. . no primary key may be equal to a value in a foreign key.
62. If no multivalued attributes exist in a relation, then the relation is in what normal form?
1. First Normal form
2. Second normal form
3. Third normal form
4. Fourth normal Form
63. If no multivalued attributes exist and no partial dependencies exist in a relation, then the relation is in what normal form?
1. First Normal form
2. Second normal form
3. Third normal form
4. Fourth normal Form
64. A transitive dependency is which of the following?
1. A functional dependency between two or more key attributes.
2. A functional dependency between two or more nonkey attributes
3. A relation that is in first normal form.
4. A relation that is in second normal form
65. Consider the following table

SREF (Key Field)

INIT

SNAME

DOB

Kids

RES

Skills

HTOWN

DISTANCE

1. the table is in second normal form
2. The table is in third normal form
3. The table is in first normal form
4. This table is not normalized


65. Referential integrity refers to rules that a RDBMS will enforce. What are these rules?(more than one answer)
1. Every table must have a primary key (a field of fields) and that primary key must not contain a NULL value
2. It is not permitted to delete a record (row) from the secondary table if there are matching records in the primary table
3. It is not permitted to delete a record (row) in the primary table if there are matching records in the secondary table
4. A Foreign Key must have either a matching value in the referring (primary) table OR be NULL
66. Normalization is
1. a process whereby the design of a table (relation) is decomposed into more tables that more precisely fit the relational model
2. the process of ensuring that a relational database has at least two tables in it.
3. the process of ensuring that each table has a key
4. a process whereby a limit is put on the number of fields a record can contain
67. A dependant field
1. must be of the same data type of the key field
2. must be numerical
3. depends upon the foreign key
4. depends upon the key field
68. Consider the following join.
    
    
    If we want to list all students whether or not they own cars together with all cars owned by students we would
1. Join STUDREC to CARS with a left join
2. Join STUDREC to CARS with an equijoin (Inner join)
3. Join STUDREC to CARS with a right join
4. Join CARS to STUDREC with a left join

 

Test 5 (IIS 6.0 & Windows Server 2003)

Windows 2003 and IIS6.0

1. The fundamental core of a computer is its
1. CPU
2. Application
3. RAM
4. OS
2. which of these is not a valid Windows 2003 editions
1. web edition
2. small business server edition
3. standard edition
4. home edition
3. The following edition of Windows2003 is designed  for business-critical and mission-critical applications
1. Web edition
2. Home edition
3. Enterprise edition
4. Datacenter edition
4. An OS  Manages
1. Hardware
2. Software
3. Memory
4. Data
5. None of the above
6. All of the above
5. This feature allows multiple applications to run simultaneously on the same system
1. Multitasking
2. Multithreading
3. Networking
4. Multiprocessing
6. There is no dedicated server in
1. Peer-to-peer network
2. Star network
3. Client-server network
4. None of the above
7. Network computers would not operate without
1. Operating System
2. Network Operating System
3. java
4. None of the above
8. This is the collection of objects in domain
1. Network
2. Workgroup
3. Organized objects
4. All the above


9. Every domain is managed by
1. OS
2. Domain controller
3. Need not be controlled
4.  Third party software is required
10. When installing a network you want to ensure than  an administrator can maintain the network with minimal effort. What type of network  enables this and also ensures that each computer function as both a client and a server
1. Peer to Peer
2. Client-server
3. Star network
4. Mesh network
11. A hierarchical arrangement of Windows 2003 domains that share  a common name is
1. Network
2. Tree
3. Forests
4. Domain
12.  A group of trees that do not share a common name is
1. Network
2. Tree
3. Forests
4. Domain
13. The information about users, computers and network resources are stored in
1. Active Directory
2. Log file
3. Trees
4. Forests
14. The network resources are made available to the users and applications by
1. Server
2. Active Directory
3. Tree
4. Domain
15. Active Directive reduces Total Cost of ownership (TCO)  by implementing
1. Policies
2. Users
3. Trees
4. Forests
16. The following organizational needs are not addressed by Active directory
1. TCO
2. Flexible administration
3. Scalability
4. Simplified administration
5. None of the above


17. The logical structure of Active Directory is
1. Objects, Organizational Units, Domains, Domain Trees, forests
2. Objects, Organizational Units, Domains, Domain Trees, console
3. Objects, Domain Trees, forests
4. Objects, Organizational Units,Domains
18. Use _____________ to create , save and  open administrative tools
1. Microsoft Management Console
2. Microsoft Managed Command
3. IE
4. None of the above
19. ______________ are collection of user and accounts that you can manage as a single unit
1. Domains
2. Groups.
3. Users
4. Files
20. The group scope does not determine
1. The domains from which you can add members to the group
2. The domains in which you can use the group to grant permissions
3. The domains in   which you can nest the group within other groups
4. None of the above
5. All the above
21. Security groups assign
1. To send mail messages to users
2.  User rights and permissions to group of users
3. All the above
4. None of the above

22.  After installing new disk , windows 2003 server recognizes it and configures it as a

a.       Function disk

b.      FAT32 disk

c.       Basic disk

d.      None of the above

23.  This is a Microsoft Management Console snap-in

a.       Partition

b.      FAT

c.       Disk Management

d.      None of the above

24.  Basic disks can have up to

a.      Four Primary Partitions

b.      Only one

c.       No partitions

d.      None of the above

25.  You can use Disk properties by using

a.      Disk Management

b.      Partitions

c.       File

d.      All the above

26. Convert Utility
1. Converts NTFS to FAT32
2. Converts FAT and FAT32 to NFTS
3. Converts Windows 2000 to Windows 2003
4. All the above
27. To create RAID volumes you must use
1. Windows 2003
2. Portioned disk
3. Basic disc
4. Dynamic Disc
28. This is device specialized for file sharing on the network
1. NAS
2. SAN
3. External Array
4. RAID
29. IIS  is a
1. Web application
2. Web service
3. .NET Module
4. Interface
30. IIS runs only on
1. Windows 95 and windows 2003
2. Windows server 2003 and windows XP -64bit edition
3. Windows 95 and windows 98
4. All the above
31. IIS  configuration information and values are stored in
1. Web config file
2. Metabase
3. Metadata
4. Virtual directory
32. In IIS 6.0
1. Access is restricted for Scripts
2. Global.asa events are run as windows user
3. ASP and ASP.NET functionality are disabled by default
4. By default parent paths are enabled
33. This is not an role of WebServer
1. Application Server
2. FTP Server
4. Intranet Web Server
5. Extranet Web Server
34. The major components of the metabase architecture of IIS 6.0 are
1. Application pools
2. Admin Base Objects
3. Security
4. Virtual directory
35. These determine  the primary functions performed by a server in your organization
1. Administrator
2. Server Roles
3. Groups
4. Policies
36. The  FTP requires
1. Port 21 for the FTP control channel and Port 20 fro FTP Data channel
2. Port 8080 for both Control and data channel
3. Port 8080 for FTP Control Channel and Port1521 fro FTP data Channel
4. Does not require Ports for communication
37. This is an extension of the intranet Web Server role
1. Internet Web Server
2. FTP Server
3. Extranet Web Server
4. IIS 6.0
38. The major componet of IIS6.0 architecture are
1. HTTP Protocol Stack
2. FTP Stack
3. Intranet
4. Mail server
39. One of these is not componet of IIS6.0
1. FTP stack
2. HTTP Protocol Stack
3. Worker Process
4. Inetinfo.exe
5. IIS Metabase
40. IIS 6.0 is installed by default on
1. Enterprise Edition
2. Standard Edition
3. DataCenter Edition
4. None of the above
41. This is the key component of Windows 2003 server application platform in which you can deploy Web Applications(ASP Pages)
1. IIS 6.0
2. Additional Web and FTP sites
3. Virtual directories
4. None of the above